In another forum I'm on, one for believers of a sort similar to me a question came up which involved Rev. 19:1.
In Greek it reads:
Μετὰ ταῦτα ἤκουσα ὡς φωνὴν μεγάλην ὄχλου πολλοῦ ἐν τῷ οὐρανῷ λεγόντων· Ἀλληλούϊα· ἡ σωτηρία καὶ ἡ δόξα καὶ ἡ δύναμις τοῦ Θεοῦ ἡμῶν,
In Bohairic Coptic it reads:
ⲘⲈⲚⲈⲚⲤⲀ ⲚⲀⲒ ⲀⲒⲤⲰⲦⲈⲘ ⲘⲪⲢⲎϮ ⲚⲞⲨⲚⲒϢϮ ⲚϦⲢⲰⲞⲨ ⲚⲦⲈⲞⲨⲘⲎϢ ⲈϤⲞϢ ϦⲈⲚⲦⲪⲈ ⲈⲨϪⲰ ⲘⲘⲞⲤ ϪⲈ ⲀⲖⲖⲎⲖⲞⲨⲒⲀ ⲠⲒⲞⲨϪⲀⲒ ⲚⲈⲘ ⲠⲒⲰⲞⲨ ⲚⲈⲘ ⲠⲒⲦⲀⲒⲞ ⲚⲈⲘ ϮϪⲞⲘ ⲚⲀ ⲠⲈⲚⲚⲞⲨϮ ⲚⲈϪⲈ ⲚⲈϤϨⲀⲠ ϨⲀⲚⲘⲈⲐⲘⲎⲒ ⲚⲈ.
I pulled both from Marcion and hope they show up on the forum alright. Now, The problem is the word ὡς. In this context it could mean
as, as if or as it were. The word appears in the majority of Greek manuscripts, including the Alexandrine family manuscripts. However, it is missing from a significant group of manuscripts, enough that Erasmus didn't include it in his master text which formed the base for the
Textus Receptus.
As the resident linguist, as it were, on that forum I check things as thoroughly as I can before I post on such subjects. We used to have a Phd. candidate on there to keep me challenged, so I'm pretty certain of things on the Greek end. However, my Coptic isn't up to the challenge yet. Well's Greek text, a theoretical construct of the Greek text on which the Coptic was based, includes ὡς. I would like to know how he gets that out of the Coptic. I'm not there yet with my Coptic understanding.
By the way, I believe the only stupid question is the one
not asked.

Dupin