Translation (Mat 25)

[Daniil]

Hello. Please tell me which passage from the Gospel in Coptic sounds in this video?
https://youtu.be/o5QA0YWuqYs

[Admin]

Mathew 25 starting from verse 14 he stops at "and when he returned".

If you are learning Coptic please don't learn that pronunciation. No native speaker has ever pronounced coptic words that way.

[Admin]

Ya until verse 19.

> And what's wrong with this pronunciation?
Coptic Church has artificially altered Coptic pronunciation in the 18th Century so that Greek letters used in Coptic match their modern Greek  pronunciation.

This also affect how Egyptians pronounced Greek names. For example: ⲑⲉⲟⲧⲟⲣⲟⲥ is "tawdros" but becomes "theo.doros" after reform.
Common words like ⲉⲩⲃⲏϣ (naked pl.) changed from "awbash" to "ev.beesh" and so on

See: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Coptic_pronunciation_reform

[Didymus]

Are the Old Bohairic and Greco-Bohairic pronunciations mutually intelligible?

Were the way Bohairic and Sahidic were historically pronounced mutually intelligible?

[Admin]

> Are the Old Bohairic and Greco-Bohairic pronunciations mutually intelligible?

Yes and no.The spelling is exactly the same so in written form they are identical.
The pronunciation is different but it follows very specific rules, if you know it you could understand the other person.
for example to go from GB to OB you need to make these changes (v -> w, av -> aw, th -> t, y -> ae (sometimes), ....) the other thing is that GB tend to break a word into more syllables. If you are aware of these differences, you could understand otherwise you can not.

> Were the way Bohairic and Sahidic were historically pronounced mutually intelligible?
Yes! Even spelling differs greatly and certain words only exist in one dialect but not the other. A person from south Egypt would need a translator to communicate with a person from the north and vise versa. Although of course being dialects of same language, it's very easy to learn one if you already know the other

[Didymus]

> Were the way Bohairic and Sahidic were historically pronounced mutually intelligible?
Yes! ... A person from south Egypt would need a translator to communicate with a person from the north and vise versa....

If a speaker of Sahidic would need a translator to understand Bohairic, then that would mean that they were not mutually intelligible wouldn't it? The rest of what you say makes sense though, thank you.

[Admin]

Yes not mutually intelligible is what I meant